Probability X1 ≥ X2












2












$begingroup$


Suppose X1 and X2 are independent Geometric p random variables. What is the
probability that X1 ≥ X2?



I am confused about this question because we aren't told anything about X1 and X2 other than they are Geometric. Wouldn't this be 50% because X1 and X2 can be anything in the range?



EDIT: New attempt
$P(X1 ≥ X2) = P(X1 > X2) + P(X1 = X2)$



$P(X1 = X2)$ = $sum_{x}$ $(1-p)^{x-1}p(1-p)^{x-1}p$ = $frac{p}{2-p}$



$P(X1 > X2)$ = $P(X1 < X2)$ and $P(X1 < X2) + P(X1 > X2) + P(X1 = X2) = 1$



Therefore, $P(X1 > X2)$ = $frac{1-P(X1 = X2)}{2}$ = $frac{1-p}{2-p}$
Adding $P(X1 = X2)=frac{p}{2-p}$ to that , I get $P(X1 ≥ X2)$ = $frac{1}{2-p}$



Is this correct?






random-variable geometric-distribution







share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Please add the 'self-study' tag.
    $endgroup$
    – StubbornAtom
    4 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Actually because X1 and X2 are discrete variables the equality makes things a bit less obvious.
    $endgroup$
    – usεr11852
    4 hours ago
















2












$begingroup$


Suppose X1 and X2 are independent Geometric p random variables. What is the
probability that X1 ≥ X2?



I am confused about this question because we aren't told anything about X1 and X2 other than they are Geometric. Wouldn't this be 50% because X1 and X2 can be anything in the range?



EDIT: New attempt
$P(X1 ≥ X2) = P(X1 > X2) + P(X1 = X2)$



$P(X1 = X2)$ = $sum_{x}$ $(1-p)^{x-1}p(1-p)^{x-1}p$ = $frac{p}{2-p}$



$P(X1 > X2)$ = $P(X1 < X2)$ and $P(X1 < X2) + P(X1 > X2) + P(X1 = X2) = 1$



Therefore, $P(X1 > X2)$ = $frac{1-P(X1 = X2)}{2}$ = $frac{1-p}{2-p}$
Adding $P(X1 = X2)=frac{p}{2-p}$ to that , I get $P(X1 ≥ X2)$ = $frac{1}{2-p}$



Is this correct?






random-variable geometric-distribution







share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Please add the 'self-study' tag.
    $endgroup$
    – StubbornAtom
    4 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Actually because X1 and X2 are discrete variables the equality makes things a bit less obvious.
    $endgroup$
    – usεr11852
    4 hours ago














2












2








2





$begingroup$


Suppose X1 and X2 are independent Geometric p random variables. What is the
probability that X1 ≥ X2?



I am confused about this question because we aren't told anything about X1 and X2 other than they are Geometric. Wouldn't this be 50% because X1 and X2 can be anything in the range?



EDIT: New attempt
$P(X1 ≥ X2) = P(X1 > X2) + P(X1 = X2)$



$P(X1 = X2)$ = $sum_{x}$ $(1-p)^{x-1}p(1-p)^{x-1}p$ = $frac{p}{2-p}$



$P(X1 > X2)$ = $P(X1 < X2)$ and $P(X1 < X2) + P(X1 > X2) + P(X1 = X2) = 1$



Therefore, $P(X1 > X2)$ = $frac{1-P(X1 = X2)}{2}$ = $frac{1-p}{2-p}$
Adding $P(X1 = X2)=frac{p}{2-p}$ to that , I get $P(X1 ≥ X2)$ = $frac{1}{2-p}$



Is this correct?






random-variable geometric-distribution







share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Suppose X1 and X2 are independent Geometric p random variables. What is the
probability that X1 ≥ X2?



I am confused about this question because we aren't told anything about X1 and X2 other than they are Geometric. Wouldn't this be 50% because X1 and X2 can be anything in the range?



EDIT: New attempt
$P(X1 ≥ X2) = P(X1 > X2) + P(X1 = X2)$



$P(X1 = X2)$ = $sum_{x}$ $(1-p)^{x-1}p(1-p)^{x-1}p$ = $frac{p}{2-p}$



$P(X1 > X2)$ = $P(X1 < X2)$ and $P(X1 < X2) + P(X1 > X2) + P(X1 = X2) = 1$



Therefore, $P(X1 > X2)$ = $frac{1-P(X1 = X2)}{2}$ = $frac{1-p}{2-p}$
Adding $P(X1 = X2)=frac{p}{2-p}$ to that , I get $P(X1 ≥ X2)$ = $frac{1}{2-p}$



Is this correct?






random-variable geometric-distribution




random-variable geometric-distribution






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited 56 mins ago







Sra

















asked 4 hours ago









SraSra

464




464








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Please add the 'self-study' tag.
    $endgroup$
    – StubbornAtom
    4 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Actually because X1 and X2 are discrete variables the equality makes things a bit less obvious.
    $endgroup$
    – usεr11852
    4 hours ago














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Please add the 'self-study' tag.
    $endgroup$
    – StubbornAtom
    4 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Actually because X1 and X2 are discrete variables the equality makes things a bit less obvious.
    $endgroup$
    – usεr11852
    4 hours ago








1




1




$begingroup$
Please add the 'self-study' tag.
$endgroup$
– StubbornAtom
4 hours ago




$begingroup$
Please add the 'self-study' tag.
$endgroup$
– StubbornAtom
4 hours ago




1




1




$begingroup$
Actually because X1 and X2 are discrete variables the equality makes things a bit less obvious.
$endgroup$
– usεr11852
4 hours ago




$begingroup$
Actually because X1 and X2 are discrete variables the equality makes things a bit less obvious.
$endgroup$
– usεr11852
4 hours ago










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

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4












$begingroup$

It can't be $50%$ because $P(X_1=X_2)>0$



One approach:



Consider the three events $P(X_1>X_2), P(X_2>X_1)$ and $P(X_1=X_2)$, which partition the sample space.



There's an obvious connection between the first two. Write an expression for the third and simplify. Hence solve the question.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    I edited, my post with my new answer. Could you take a look and see if it's correct?
    $endgroup$
    – Sra
    56 mins ago











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1 Answer
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active

oldest

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active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









4












$begingroup$

It can't be $50%$ because $P(X_1=X_2)>0$



One approach:



Consider the three events $P(X_1>X_2), P(X_2>X_1)$ and $P(X_1=X_2)$, which partition the sample space.



There's an obvious connection between the first two. Write an expression for the third and simplify. Hence solve the question.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    I edited, my post with my new answer. Could you take a look and see if it's correct?
    $endgroup$
    – Sra
    56 mins ago
















4












$begingroup$

It can't be $50%$ because $P(X_1=X_2)>0$



One approach:



Consider the three events $P(X_1>X_2), P(X_2>X_1)$ and $P(X_1=X_2)$, which partition the sample space.



There's an obvious connection between the first two. Write an expression for the third and simplify. Hence solve the question.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    I edited, my post with my new answer. Could you take a look and see if it's correct?
    $endgroup$
    – Sra
    56 mins ago














4












4








4





$begingroup$

It can't be $50%$ because $P(X_1=X_2)>0$



One approach:



Consider the three events $P(X_1>X_2), P(X_2>X_1)$ and $P(X_1=X_2)$, which partition the sample space.



There's an obvious connection between the first two. Write an expression for the third and simplify. Hence solve the question.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$



It can't be $50%$ because $P(X_1=X_2)>0$



One approach:



Consider the three events $P(X_1>X_2), P(X_2>X_1)$ and $P(X_1=X_2)$, which partition the sample space.



There's an obvious connection between the first two. Write an expression for the third and simplify. Hence solve the question.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited 3 hours ago

























answered 4 hours ago









Glen_b♦Glen_b

212k22406754




212k22406754












  • $begingroup$
    I edited, my post with my new answer. Could you take a look and see if it's correct?
    $endgroup$
    – Sra
    56 mins ago


















  • $begingroup$
    I edited, my post with my new answer. Could you take a look and see if it's correct?
    $endgroup$
    – Sra
    56 mins ago
















$begingroup$
I edited, my post with my new answer. Could you take a look and see if it's correct?
$endgroup$
– Sra
56 mins ago




$begingroup$
I edited, my post with my new answer. Could you take a look and see if it's correct?
$endgroup$
– Sra
56 mins ago


















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