Why do electromagnetic waves have the magnetic and electric field intensities in the same phase?
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My question is: in electromagnetic waves, if we consider the electric field as a sine function, the magnetic field will be also a sine function, but I am confused why that is this way.
If I look at Maxwell's equation, the changing magnetic field generates the electric field and the changing electric field generates the magnetic field, so according to my opinion if the accelerating electron generates a sine electric field change, then its magnetic field should be a cosine function because $frac{d(sin x)}{dx}=cos x$.
electromagnetic-radiation
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My question is: in electromagnetic waves, if we consider the electric field as a sine function, the magnetic field will be also a sine function, but I am confused why that is this way.
If I look at Maxwell's equation, the changing magnetic field generates the electric field and the changing electric field generates the magnetic field, so according to my opinion if the accelerating electron generates a sine electric field change, then its magnetic field should be a cosine function because $frac{d(sin x)}{dx}=cos x$.
electromagnetic-radiation
New contributor
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add a comment |
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My question is: in electromagnetic waves, if we consider the electric field as a sine function, the magnetic field will be also a sine function, but I am confused why that is this way.
If I look at Maxwell's equation, the changing magnetic field generates the electric field and the changing electric field generates the magnetic field, so according to my opinion if the accelerating electron generates a sine electric field change, then its magnetic field should be a cosine function because $frac{d(sin x)}{dx}=cos x$.
electromagnetic-radiation
New contributor
$endgroup$
My question is: in electromagnetic waves, if we consider the electric field as a sine function, the magnetic field will be also a sine function, but I am confused why that is this way.
If I look at Maxwell's equation, the changing magnetic field generates the electric field and the changing electric field generates the magnetic field, so according to my opinion if the accelerating electron generates a sine electric field change, then its magnetic field should be a cosine function because $frac{d(sin x)}{dx}=cos x$.
electromagnetic-radiation
electromagnetic-radiation
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edited 31 mins ago
David Z♦
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asked 6 hours ago
Bálint TataiBálint Tatai
241
241
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The Maxwell equations that relate electric and magnetic fields to each other read (in vacuum, in SI units) as
begin{align}
nabla times mathbf E & = -frac{partialmathbf B}{partial t} \
nabla times mathbf B & = frac{1}{c^2} frac{partialmathbf E}{partial t},
end{align}
where the notation $nabla times{cdot}$ is a spatial derivative (the curl). This means that both sides have derivatives, and if you're applying them to a function like $cos(kx-omega t)$, then they will both change the cosine into a sine. This is what locks the phase of both waves to equal values.
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$begingroup$
The Maxwell equations that relate electric and magnetic fields to each other read (in vacuum, in SI units) as
begin{align}
nabla times mathbf E & = -frac{partialmathbf B}{partial t} \
nabla times mathbf B & = frac{1}{c^2} frac{partialmathbf E}{partial t},
end{align}
where the notation $nabla times{cdot}$ is a spatial derivative (the curl). This means that both sides have derivatives, and if you're applying them to a function like $cos(kx-omega t)$, then they will both change the cosine into a sine. This is what locks the phase of both waves to equal values.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The Maxwell equations that relate electric and magnetic fields to each other read (in vacuum, in SI units) as
begin{align}
nabla times mathbf E & = -frac{partialmathbf B}{partial t} \
nabla times mathbf B & = frac{1}{c^2} frac{partialmathbf E}{partial t},
end{align}
where the notation $nabla times{cdot}$ is a spatial derivative (the curl). This means that both sides have derivatives, and if you're applying them to a function like $cos(kx-omega t)$, then they will both change the cosine into a sine. This is what locks the phase of both waves to equal values.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The Maxwell equations that relate electric and magnetic fields to each other read (in vacuum, in SI units) as
begin{align}
nabla times mathbf E & = -frac{partialmathbf B}{partial t} \
nabla times mathbf B & = frac{1}{c^2} frac{partialmathbf E}{partial t},
end{align}
where the notation $nabla times{cdot}$ is a spatial derivative (the curl). This means that both sides have derivatives, and if you're applying them to a function like $cos(kx-omega t)$, then they will both change the cosine into a sine. This is what locks the phase of both waves to equal values.
$endgroup$
The Maxwell equations that relate electric and magnetic fields to each other read (in vacuum, in SI units) as
begin{align}
nabla times mathbf E & = -frac{partialmathbf B}{partial t} \
nabla times mathbf B & = frac{1}{c^2} frac{partialmathbf E}{partial t},
end{align}
where the notation $nabla times{cdot}$ is a spatial derivative (the curl). This means that both sides have derivatives, and if you're applying them to a function like $cos(kx-omega t)$, then they will both change the cosine into a sine. This is what locks the phase of both waves to equal values.
answered 6 hours ago
Emilio PisantyEmilio Pisanty
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Bálint Tatai is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
Bálint Tatai is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
Bálint Tatai is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
Bálint Tatai is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
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