Prove this function has at most two zero points
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Let $f(x)$ be a twice differentiable function on the interval $(-infty,+infty)$ and $f''(x)>f(x)$ for all $x$.prove that $f$ has at most zero points.
I'm trying to prove it by contradiction,but I can't work it out.
real-analysis calculus
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $f(x)$ be a twice differentiable function on the interval $(-infty,+infty)$ and $f''(x)>f(x)$ for all $x$.prove that $f$ has at most zero points.
I'm trying to prove it by contradiction,but I can't work it out.
real-analysis calculus
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $f(x)$ be a twice differentiable function on the interval $(-infty,+infty)$ and $f''(x)>f(x)$ for all $x$.prove that $f$ has at most zero points.
I'm trying to prove it by contradiction,but I can't work it out.
real-analysis calculus
$endgroup$
Let $f(x)$ be a twice differentiable function on the interval $(-infty,+infty)$ and $f''(x)>f(x)$ for all $x$.prove that $f$ has at most zero points.
I'm trying to prove it by contradiction,but I can't work it out.
real-analysis calculus
real-analysis calculus
asked 52 mins ago
MaxwellMaxwell
364
364
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add a comment |
1 Answer
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If $f$ has more than 2 zeros, then so does $e^{-x}f(x)=g(x)$. Then by the Rolle's theorem, $$h(x)=e^xg'(x)=f'(x)-f(x)$$ should have at least 2 zeros. But then $e^xh(x)$ has at least 2 zeros, which contradicts $$[e^xh(x)]'=e^x(h'(x)+h(x))=e^x(f''(x)-f(x))>0.$$
New contributor
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Thank you so much!tailihaile!
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– Maxwell
17 mins ago
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1 Answer
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1 Answer
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active
oldest
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active
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active
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$begingroup$
If $f$ has more than 2 zeros, then so does $e^{-x}f(x)=g(x)$. Then by the Rolle's theorem, $$h(x)=e^xg'(x)=f'(x)-f(x)$$ should have at least 2 zeros. But then $e^xh(x)$ has at least 2 zeros, which contradicts $$[e^xh(x)]'=e^x(h'(x)+h(x))=e^x(f''(x)-f(x))>0.$$
New contributor
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thank you so much!tailihaile!
$endgroup$
– Maxwell
17 mins ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
If $f$ has more than 2 zeros, then so does $e^{-x}f(x)=g(x)$. Then by the Rolle's theorem, $$h(x)=e^xg'(x)=f'(x)-f(x)$$ should have at least 2 zeros. But then $e^xh(x)$ has at least 2 zeros, which contradicts $$[e^xh(x)]'=e^x(h'(x)+h(x))=e^x(f''(x)-f(x))>0.$$
New contributor
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thank you so much!tailihaile!
$endgroup$
– Maxwell
17 mins ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
If $f$ has more than 2 zeros, then so does $e^{-x}f(x)=g(x)$. Then by the Rolle's theorem, $$h(x)=e^xg'(x)=f'(x)-f(x)$$ should have at least 2 zeros. But then $e^xh(x)$ has at least 2 zeros, which contradicts $$[e^xh(x)]'=e^x(h'(x)+h(x))=e^x(f''(x)-f(x))>0.$$
New contributor
$endgroup$
If $f$ has more than 2 zeros, then so does $e^{-x}f(x)=g(x)$. Then by the Rolle's theorem, $$h(x)=e^xg'(x)=f'(x)-f(x)$$ should have at least 2 zeros. But then $e^xh(x)$ has at least 2 zeros, which contradicts $$[e^xh(x)]'=e^x(h'(x)+h(x))=e^x(f''(x)-f(x))>0.$$
New contributor
New contributor
answered 34 mins ago
NaoNao
713
713
New contributor
New contributor
$begingroup$
Thank you so much!tailihaile!
$endgroup$
– Maxwell
17 mins ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Thank you so much!tailihaile!
$endgroup$
– Maxwell
17 mins ago
$begingroup$
Thank you so much!tailihaile!
$endgroup$
– Maxwell
17 mins ago
$begingroup$
Thank you so much!tailihaile!
$endgroup$
– Maxwell
17 mins ago
add a comment |
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