Prove this function has at most two zero points












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Let $f(x)$ be a twice differentiable function on the interval $(-infty,+infty)$ and $f''(x)>f(x)$ for all $x$.prove that $f$ has at most zero points.



I'm trying to prove it by contradiction,but I can't work it out.










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    2












    $begingroup$


    Let $f(x)$ be a twice differentiable function on the interval $(-infty,+infty)$ and $f''(x)>f(x)$ for all $x$.prove that $f$ has at most zero points.



    I'm trying to prove it by contradiction,but I can't work it out.










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      2












      2








      2


      1



      $begingroup$


      Let $f(x)$ be a twice differentiable function on the interval $(-infty,+infty)$ and $f''(x)>f(x)$ for all $x$.prove that $f$ has at most zero points.



      I'm trying to prove it by contradiction,but I can't work it out.










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      Let $f(x)$ be a twice differentiable function on the interval $(-infty,+infty)$ and $f''(x)>f(x)$ for all $x$.prove that $f$ has at most zero points.



      I'm trying to prove it by contradiction,but I can't work it out.







      real-analysis calculus






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      asked 52 mins ago









      MaxwellMaxwell

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      364






















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          $begingroup$

          If $f$ has more than 2 zeros, then so does $e^{-x}f(x)=g(x)$. Then by the Rolle's theorem, $$h(x)=e^xg'(x)=f'(x)-f(x)$$ should have at least 2 zeros. But then $e^xh(x)$ has at least 2 zeros, which contradicts $$[e^xh(x)]'=e^x(h'(x)+h(x))=e^x(f''(x)-f(x))>0.$$






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          • $begingroup$
            Thank you so much!tailihaile!
            $endgroup$
            – Maxwell
            17 mins ago











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          $begingroup$

          If $f$ has more than 2 zeros, then so does $e^{-x}f(x)=g(x)$. Then by the Rolle's theorem, $$h(x)=e^xg'(x)=f'(x)-f(x)$$ should have at least 2 zeros. But then $e^xh(x)$ has at least 2 zeros, which contradicts $$[e^xh(x)]'=e^x(h'(x)+h(x))=e^x(f''(x)-f(x))>0.$$






          share|cite|improve this answer








          New contributor




          Nao is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
          Check out our Code of Conduct.






          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Thank you so much!tailihaile!
            $endgroup$
            – Maxwell
            17 mins ago
















          7












          $begingroup$

          If $f$ has more than 2 zeros, then so does $e^{-x}f(x)=g(x)$. Then by the Rolle's theorem, $$h(x)=e^xg'(x)=f'(x)-f(x)$$ should have at least 2 zeros. But then $e^xh(x)$ has at least 2 zeros, which contradicts $$[e^xh(x)]'=e^x(h'(x)+h(x))=e^x(f''(x)-f(x))>0.$$






          share|cite|improve this answer








          New contributor




          Nao is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
          Check out our Code of Conduct.






          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Thank you so much!tailihaile!
            $endgroup$
            – Maxwell
            17 mins ago














          7












          7








          7





          $begingroup$

          If $f$ has more than 2 zeros, then so does $e^{-x}f(x)=g(x)$. Then by the Rolle's theorem, $$h(x)=e^xg'(x)=f'(x)-f(x)$$ should have at least 2 zeros. But then $e^xh(x)$ has at least 2 zeros, which contradicts $$[e^xh(x)]'=e^x(h'(x)+h(x))=e^x(f''(x)-f(x))>0.$$






          share|cite|improve this answer








          New contributor




          Nao is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
          Check out our Code of Conduct.






          $endgroup$



          If $f$ has more than 2 zeros, then so does $e^{-x}f(x)=g(x)$. Then by the Rolle's theorem, $$h(x)=e^xg'(x)=f'(x)-f(x)$$ should have at least 2 zeros. But then $e^xh(x)$ has at least 2 zeros, which contradicts $$[e^xh(x)]'=e^x(h'(x)+h(x))=e^x(f''(x)-f(x))>0.$$







          share|cite|improve this answer








          New contributor




          Nao is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
          Check out our Code of Conduct.









          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer






          New contributor




          Nao is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
          Check out our Code of Conduct.









          answered 34 mins ago









          NaoNao

          713




          713




          New contributor




          Nao is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
          Check out our Code of Conduct.





          New contributor





          Nao is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
          Check out our Code of Conduct.






          Nao is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
          Check out our Code of Conduct.












          • $begingroup$
            Thank you so much!tailihaile!
            $endgroup$
            – Maxwell
            17 mins ago


















          • $begingroup$
            Thank you so much!tailihaile!
            $endgroup$
            – Maxwell
            17 mins ago
















          $begingroup$
          Thank you so much!tailihaile!
          $endgroup$
          – Maxwell
          17 mins ago




          $begingroup$
          Thank you so much!tailihaile!
          $endgroup$
          – Maxwell
          17 mins ago


















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