Justification of an isomorphism











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I am wondering if the following is true:



$$mathbb{Z}[t]/(t,3)congmathbb{Z}/3.$$



I can tell that the ideal $(t,3)$ is maximal. In contrast, the ideal $(t^2,2t)$ is not even irreducible. So it's less likely that we can simplify $mathbb{Z}[t]/(t^2,2t)$ further.



If the aforementioned isomorphism is true, that means $mathbb{Z}[t]/(t,3)cong(mathbb{Z}[t]/t)/(3)congmathbb{Z}/3$, where the $(3)$ is an ideal in $mathbb{Z}[t]/t$. My questions are:



1) Is this argument legitimate?



2) If it is true, is there any theorem justifying the aforementioned isomorphism?










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    up vote
    2
    down vote

    favorite
    1












    I am wondering if the following is true:



    $$mathbb{Z}[t]/(t,3)congmathbb{Z}/3.$$



    I can tell that the ideal $(t,3)$ is maximal. In contrast, the ideal $(t^2,2t)$ is not even irreducible. So it's less likely that we can simplify $mathbb{Z}[t]/(t^2,2t)$ further.



    If the aforementioned isomorphism is true, that means $mathbb{Z}[t]/(t,3)cong(mathbb{Z}[t]/t)/(3)congmathbb{Z}/3$, where the $(3)$ is an ideal in $mathbb{Z}[t]/t$. My questions are:



    1) Is this argument legitimate?



    2) If it is true, is there any theorem justifying the aforementioned isomorphism?










    share|cite|improve this question
























      up vote
      2
      down vote

      favorite
      1









      up vote
      2
      down vote

      favorite
      1






      1





      I am wondering if the following is true:



      $$mathbb{Z}[t]/(t,3)congmathbb{Z}/3.$$



      I can tell that the ideal $(t,3)$ is maximal. In contrast, the ideal $(t^2,2t)$ is not even irreducible. So it's less likely that we can simplify $mathbb{Z}[t]/(t^2,2t)$ further.



      If the aforementioned isomorphism is true, that means $mathbb{Z}[t]/(t,3)cong(mathbb{Z}[t]/t)/(3)congmathbb{Z}/3$, where the $(3)$ is an ideal in $mathbb{Z}[t]/t$. My questions are:



      1) Is this argument legitimate?



      2) If it is true, is there any theorem justifying the aforementioned isomorphism?










      share|cite|improve this question













      I am wondering if the following is true:



      $$mathbb{Z}[t]/(t,3)congmathbb{Z}/3.$$



      I can tell that the ideal $(t,3)$ is maximal. In contrast, the ideal $(t^2,2t)$ is not even irreducible. So it's less likely that we can simplify $mathbb{Z}[t]/(t^2,2t)$ further.



      If the aforementioned isomorphism is true, that means $mathbb{Z}[t]/(t,3)cong(mathbb{Z}[t]/t)/(3)congmathbb{Z}/3$, where the $(3)$ is an ideal in $mathbb{Z}[t]/t$. My questions are:



      1) Is this argument legitimate?



      2) If it is true, is there any theorem justifying the aforementioned isomorphism?







      abstract-algebra ring-theory






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      asked 2 hours ago









      J. Wang

      523




      523






















          2 Answers
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          down vote



          accepted










          Yes your intuition is correct and I try to explain necessary steps:




          Claim. $Bbb{Z}[x]/<x,3>congBbb{Z}/<3>$




          Well, I prove the following steps:



          $$Bbb{Z}[x]/<x,3>cong frac{Bbb{Z}[x]/<x>}{<x,3>/<x>} congBbb{Z}/<3>$$




          • The first isomorphism is due to the 2nd Isomorphism Theorem of Ring theory.


          • I think $Bbb{Z}[x]/<x> cong Bbb{Z}$ is clear. (Hint: consider the homomorphism $f(x) mapsto f(0)$ form $Bbb{Z}[x]$ to $Bbb{Z}$ and use 1st Isomorphism Theorem on Rings.


          • Now for the equality $<x,3>/<x>cong <3>$ Try to define the homomorphism as follows:



          $phi :<x,3> to <3>$ by mapping any element $xf(x)+3g(x)in <x,3>$ to $3g(0)$ in $<3>$ (N.B. Here, $f,g in Bbb{Z}[x]$), i.e. $$phi: xf(x)+3g(x) mapsto 3g(0)$$



          See that this is an epimorphism. Also $ker phi=<x>$. Then by 1st Isomorphism theorem $<x,3>/ker phi cong <3>$. Which justifies all your steps...!!



          N.B. To find out the $ker phi$, remember for any $g(x)in Bbb{Z}[x]$ if we have $g(0)=0$ that means $x$ is a factor of $g$ and so $gin <x>$.






          share|cite|improve this answer




























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            It's legitimate and a consequence of the isomorphism theorems.






            share|cite|improve this answer





















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              up vote
              2
              down vote



              accepted










              Yes your intuition is correct and I try to explain necessary steps:




              Claim. $Bbb{Z}[x]/<x,3>congBbb{Z}/<3>$




              Well, I prove the following steps:



              $$Bbb{Z}[x]/<x,3>cong frac{Bbb{Z}[x]/<x>}{<x,3>/<x>} congBbb{Z}/<3>$$




              • The first isomorphism is due to the 2nd Isomorphism Theorem of Ring theory.


              • I think $Bbb{Z}[x]/<x> cong Bbb{Z}$ is clear. (Hint: consider the homomorphism $f(x) mapsto f(0)$ form $Bbb{Z}[x]$ to $Bbb{Z}$ and use 1st Isomorphism Theorem on Rings.


              • Now for the equality $<x,3>/<x>cong <3>$ Try to define the homomorphism as follows:



              $phi :<x,3> to <3>$ by mapping any element $xf(x)+3g(x)in <x,3>$ to $3g(0)$ in $<3>$ (N.B. Here, $f,g in Bbb{Z}[x]$), i.e. $$phi: xf(x)+3g(x) mapsto 3g(0)$$



              See that this is an epimorphism. Also $ker phi=<x>$. Then by 1st Isomorphism theorem $<x,3>/ker phi cong <3>$. Which justifies all your steps...!!



              N.B. To find out the $ker phi$, remember for any $g(x)in Bbb{Z}[x]$ if we have $g(0)=0$ that means $x$ is a factor of $g$ and so $gin <x>$.






              share|cite|improve this answer

























                up vote
                2
                down vote



                accepted










                Yes your intuition is correct and I try to explain necessary steps:




                Claim. $Bbb{Z}[x]/<x,3>congBbb{Z}/<3>$




                Well, I prove the following steps:



                $$Bbb{Z}[x]/<x,3>cong frac{Bbb{Z}[x]/<x>}{<x,3>/<x>} congBbb{Z}/<3>$$




                • The first isomorphism is due to the 2nd Isomorphism Theorem of Ring theory.


                • I think $Bbb{Z}[x]/<x> cong Bbb{Z}$ is clear. (Hint: consider the homomorphism $f(x) mapsto f(0)$ form $Bbb{Z}[x]$ to $Bbb{Z}$ and use 1st Isomorphism Theorem on Rings.


                • Now for the equality $<x,3>/<x>cong <3>$ Try to define the homomorphism as follows:



                $phi :<x,3> to <3>$ by mapping any element $xf(x)+3g(x)in <x,3>$ to $3g(0)$ in $<3>$ (N.B. Here, $f,g in Bbb{Z}[x]$), i.e. $$phi: xf(x)+3g(x) mapsto 3g(0)$$



                See that this is an epimorphism. Also $ker phi=<x>$. Then by 1st Isomorphism theorem $<x,3>/ker phi cong <3>$. Which justifies all your steps...!!



                N.B. To find out the $ker phi$, remember for any $g(x)in Bbb{Z}[x]$ if we have $g(0)=0$ that means $x$ is a factor of $g$ and so $gin <x>$.






                share|cite|improve this answer























                  up vote
                  2
                  down vote



                  accepted







                  up vote
                  2
                  down vote



                  accepted






                  Yes your intuition is correct and I try to explain necessary steps:




                  Claim. $Bbb{Z}[x]/<x,3>congBbb{Z}/<3>$




                  Well, I prove the following steps:



                  $$Bbb{Z}[x]/<x,3>cong frac{Bbb{Z}[x]/<x>}{<x,3>/<x>} congBbb{Z}/<3>$$




                  • The first isomorphism is due to the 2nd Isomorphism Theorem of Ring theory.


                  • I think $Bbb{Z}[x]/<x> cong Bbb{Z}$ is clear. (Hint: consider the homomorphism $f(x) mapsto f(0)$ form $Bbb{Z}[x]$ to $Bbb{Z}$ and use 1st Isomorphism Theorem on Rings.


                  • Now for the equality $<x,3>/<x>cong <3>$ Try to define the homomorphism as follows:



                  $phi :<x,3> to <3>$ by mapping any element $xf(x)+3g(x)in <x,3>$ to $3g(0)$ in $<3>$ (N.B. Here, $f,g in Bbb{Z}[x]$), i.e. $$phi: xf(x)+3g(x) mapsto 3g(0)$$



                  See that this is an epimorphism. Also $ker phi=<x>$. Then by 1st Isomorphism theorem $<x,3>/ker phi cong <3>$. Which justifies all your steps...!!



                  N.B. To find out the $ker phi$, remember for any $g(x)in Bbb{Z}[x]$ if we have $g(0)=0$ that means $x$ is a factor of $g$ and so $gin <x>$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  Yes your intuition is correct and I try to explain necessary steps:




                  Claim. $Bbb{Z}[x]/<x,3>congBbb{Z}/<3>$




                  Well, I prove the following steps:



                  $$Bbb{Z}[x]/<x,3>cong frac{Bbb{Z}[x]/<x>}{<x,3>/<x>} congBbb{Z}/<3>$$




                  • The first isomorphism is due to the 2nd Isomorphism Theorem of Ring theory.


                  • I think $Bbb{Z}[x]/<x> cong Bbb{Z}$ is clear. (Hint: consider the homomorphism $f(x) mapsto f(0)$ form $Bbb{Z}[x]$ to $Bbb{Z}$ and use 1st Isomorphism Theorem on Rings.


                  • Now for the equality $<x,3>/<x>cong <3>$ Try to define the homomorphism as follows:



                  $phi :<x,3> to <3>$ by mapping any element $xf(x)+3g(x)in <x,3>$ to $3g(0)$ in $<3>$ (N.B. Here, $f,g in Bbb{Z}[x]$), i.e. $$phi: xf(x)+3g(x) mapsto 3g(0)$$



                  See that this is an epimorphism. Also $ker phi=<x>$. Then by 1st Isomorphism theorem $<x,3>/ker phi cong <3>$. Which justifies all your steps...!!



                  N.B. To find out the $ker phi$, remember for any $g(x)in Bbb{Z}[x]$ if we have $g(0)=0$ that means $x$ is a factor of $g$ and so $gin <x>$.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered 1 hour ago









                  Indrajit Ghosh

                  1,0291717




                  1,0291717






















                      up vote
                      1
                      down vote













                      It's legitimate and a consequence of the isomorphism theorems.






                      share|cite|improve this answer

























                        up vote
                        1
                        down vote













                        It's legitimate and a consequence of the isomorphism theorems.






                        share|cite|improve this answer























                          up vote
                          1
                          down vote










                          up vote
                          1
                          down vote









                          It's legitimate and a consequence of the isomorphism theorems.






                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          It's legitimate and a consequence of the isomorphism theorems.







                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer










                          answered 1 hour ago









                          CyclotomicField

                          2,1241312




                          2,1241312






























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