Reducible and Irreducible polynomials are confusing me











up vote
2
down vote

favorite












The definition claims that a polynomial in a field of positive degree is a reducible polynomial when it can be written as the product of 2 polynomials in the field with positive degrees. Other wise it is irreducible.



So if a polynomial $f(x)$ can be written as the product of say $41(x^2 + x)$, is that considered not reducible because 41 is really $41x^0$, and 0 isn't technically positive, but by the definition of a polynomial in a field it is a polynomial if $a_n$ isn't 0 for the highest degree $n$ where $n geq 0$.



So would the example of the polynomial example I gave be reducible or irreducible?










share|cite|improve this question


























    up vote
    2
    down vote

    favorite












    The definition claims that a polynomial in a field of positive degree is a reducible polynomial when it can be written as the product of 2 polynomials in the field with positive degrees. Other wise it is irreducible.



    So if a polynomial $f(x)$ can be written as the product of say $41(x^2 + x)$, is that considered not reducible because 41 is really $41x^0$, and 0 isn't technically positive, but by the definition of a polynomial in a field it is a polynomial if $a_n$ isn't 0 for the highest degree $n$ where $n geq 0$.



    So would the example of the polynomial example I gave be reducible or irreducible?










    share|cite|improve this question
























      up vote
      2
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      2
      down vote

      favorite











      The definition claims that a polynomial in a field of positive degree is a reducible polynomial when it can be written as the product of 2 polynomials in the field with positive degrees. Other wise it is irreducible.



      So if a polynomial $f(x)$ can be written as the product of say $41(x^2 + x)$, is that considered not reducible because 41 is really $41x^0$, and 0 isn't technically positive, but by the definition of a polynomial in a field it is a polynomial if $a_n$ isn't 0 for the highest degree $n$ where $n geq 0$.



      So would the example of the polynomial example I gave be reducible or irreducible?










      share|cite|improve this question













      The definition claims that a polynomial in a field of positive degree is a reducible polynomial when it can be written as the product of 2 polynomials in the field with positive degrees. Other wise it is irreducible.



      So if a polynomial $f(x)$ can be written as the product of say $41(x^2 + x)$, is that considered not reducible because 41 is really $41x^0$, and 0 isn't technically positive, but by the definition of a polynomial in a field it is a polynomial if $a_n$ isn't 0 for the highest degree $n$ where $n geq 0$.



      So would the example of the polynomial example I gave be reducible or irreducible?







      linear-algebra






      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked 44 mins ago









      ming

      374




      374






















          3 Answers
          3






          active

          oldest

          votes

















          up vote
          6
          down vote













          This particular example would be reducible, but not because of the reason you give -- it would be because you could write it as $41x(x+1)$. Note that $0$ is not positive, so the factorization you give is not a product of two polynomials with positive degree ($41$ is a polynomial of degree $0$).






          share|cite|improve this answer

















          • 1




            So if it was $41(x + 1)$ it would be irreducible right? Because 41 cannot be written with a degree of anything greater than 0, and 0 is not positive?
            – ming
            35 mins ago












          • Correct, $41x + 41$ is irreducible (assuming you are working over $mathbb{Z}[x]$).
            – platty
            33 mins ago


















          up vote
          1
          down vote














          Definition : Given an integral domain $R$, a non-zero non-unit element $r in R$ is said to be irreducible if it cannot be written as a product of non-units i.e. whenever it is written as a product of two elements, at least one of them is a unit in $R$.




          For polynomials, this becomes :




          Definition : Given an integral domain $R$, the ring $R[X]$ also is an integral domain, and $f$ is an irreducible polynomial over $R$ if it is an irreducible element of $R[X]$.




          So, it is that simple. Let us take some examples to clarify.




          • The polynomial $f(x) = x$ is irreducible over any ring, since if $a(x)b(x) =x$, then WLOG $a$ must be a constant polynomial with the constant being a unit(use the rules for multiplication of polynomials), so $a$ is a unit in $R[X]$, hence $x$ is irreducible.


          • The polynomial $f(x) = 2x+2$ is irreducible over $mathbb R[X]$. This is because if $a(x)b(x)$ divides $2(x+1)$ then at least one of $a(x)$ or $b(x)$ is a constant polynomial, but every constant polynomial is a unit in $mathbb R$. However, this polynomial is reducible over $mathbb Z[X]$, since here, $2(x+1)$ counts as a non-unit factorization, because $2$ is not a unit.



          Therefore, reducibility depends on "over which ring/field"? For example, $41 = 41x^0$ is a constant polynomial, but it isn't a unit in $mathbb Z[X]$, while it is one in $mathbb R[X]$. So, a polynomial like $41(x+1)$ is irreducible over the latter but not over the former.





          While working over a field, it turns out that the set of units of $F[X]$ is equal to the non-zero constant polynomials. Therefore, any polynomial is irreducible in $F[X]$ if and only if it can be written as the product of two non-constant polynomials. Things will change for a ring which is not a field, since some non-constant polynomials may possibly not be units.



          Also, note that $41(x^2+x)$ is reducible in every field, since it can be written as $(41 x) times (x+1)$ which is the product of two non-constant polynomials, which are always non-units by the fact that the degree is multiplicative.






          share|cite|improve this answer




























            up vote
            0
            down vote













            A polynomial $f(x)$ is irreducible if $f(x)=g(x)h(x)$ with $deg(g(x)) ge 1$, and $deg(h(x)) ge 1$






            share|cite





















              Your Answer





              StackExchange.ifUsing("editor", function () {
              return StackExchange.using("mathjaxEditing", function () {
              StackExchange.MarkdownEditor.creationCallbacks.add(function (editor, postfix) {
              StackExchange.mathjaxEditing.prepareWmdForMathJax(editor, postfix, [["$", "$"], ["\\(","\\)"]]);
              });
              });
              }, "mathjax-editing");

              StackExchange.ready(function() {
              var channelOptions = {
              tags: "".split(" "),
              id: "69"
              };
              initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

              StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function() {
              // Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
              if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled) {
              StackExchange.using("snippets", function() {
              createEditor();
              });
              }
              else {
              createEditor();
              }
              });

              function createEditor() {
              StackExchange.prepareEditor({
              heartbeatType: 'answer',
              convertImagesToLinks: true,
              noModals: true,
              showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
              reputationToPostImages: 10,
              bindNavPrevention: true,
              postfix: "",
              imageUploader: {
              brandingHtml: "Powered by u003ca class="icon-imgur-white" href="https://imgur.com/"u003eu003c/au003e",
              contentPolicyHtml: "User contributions licensed under u003ca href="https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/"u003ecc by-sa 3.0 with attribution requiredu003c/au003e u003ca href="https://stackoverflow.com/legal/content-policy"u003e(content policy)u003c/au003e",
              allowUrls: true
              },
              noCode: true, onDemand: true,
              discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
              ,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
              });


              }
              });














               

              draft saved


              draft discarded


















              StackExchange.ready(
              function () {
              StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f3016802%2freducible-and-irreducible-polynomials-are-confusing-me%23new-answer', 'question_page');
              }
              );

              Post as a guest















              Required, but never shown

























              3 Answers
              3






              active

              oldest

              votes








              3 Answers
              3






              active

              oldest

              votes









              active

              oldest

              votes






              active

              oldest

              votes








              up vote
              6
              down vote













              This particular example would be reducible, but not because of the reason you give -- it would be because you could write it as $41x(x+1)$. Note that $0$ is not positive, so the factorization you give is not a product of two polynomials with positive degree ($41$ is a polynomial of degree $0$).






              share|cite|improve this answer

















              • 1




                So if it was $41(x + 1)$ it would be irreducible right? Because 41 cannot be written with a degree of anything greater than 0, and 0 is not positive?
                – ming
                35 mins ago












              • Correct, $41x + 41$ is irreducible (assuming you are working over $mathbb{Z}[x]$).
                – platty
                33 mins ago















              up vote
              6
              down vote













              This particular example would be reducible, but not because of the reason you give -- it would be because you could write it as $41x(x+1)$. Note that $0$ is not positive, so the factorization you give is not a product of two polynomials with positive degree ($41$ is a polynomial of degree $0$).






              share|cite|improve this answer

















              • 1




                So if it was $41(x + 1)$ it would be irreducible right? Because 41 cannot be written with a degree of anything greater than 0, and 0 is not positive?
                – ming
                35 mins ago












              • Correct, $41x + 41$ is irreducible (assuming you are working over $mathbb{Z}[x]$).
                – platty
                33 mins ago













              up vote
              6
              down vote










              up vote
              6
              down vote









              This particular example would be reducible, but not because of the reason you give -- it would be because you could write it as $41x(x+1)$. Note that $0$ is not positive, so the factorization you give is not a product of two polynomials with positive degree ($41$ is a polynomial of degree $0$).






              share|cite|improve this answer












              This particular example would be reducible, but not because of the reason you give -- it would be because you could write it as $41x(x+1)$. Note that $0$ is not positive, so the factorization you give is not a product of two polynomials with positive degree ($41$ is a polynomial of degree $0$).







              share|cite|improve this answer












              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer










              answered 38 mins ago









              platty

              1,869211




              1,869211








              • 1




                So if it was $41(x + 1)$ it would be irreducible right? Because 41 cannot be written with a degree of anything greater than 0, and 0 is not positive?
                – ming
                35 mins ago












              • Correct, $41x + 41$ is irreducible (assuming you are working over $mathbb{Z}[x]$).
                – platty
                33 mins ago














              • 1




                So if it was $41(x + 1)$ it would be irreducible right? Because 41 cannot be written with a degree of anything greater than 0, and 0 is not positive?
                – ming
                35 mins ago












              • Correct, $41x + 41$ is irreducible (assuming you are working over $mathbb{Z}[x]$).
                – platty
                33 mins ago








              1




              1




              So if it was $41(x + 1)$ it would be irreducible right? Because 41 cannot be written with a degree of anything greater than 0, and 0 is not positive?
              – ming
              35 mins ago






              So if it was $41(x + 1)$ it would be irreducible right? Because 41 cannot be written with a degree of anything greater than 0, and 0 is not positive?
              – ming
              35 mins ago














              Correct, $41x + 41$ is irreducible (assuming you are working over $mathbb{Z}[x]$).
              – platty
              33 mins ago




              Correct, $41x + 41$ is irreducible (assuming you are working over $mathbb{Z}[x]$).
              – platty
              33 mins ago










              up vote
              1
              down vote














              Definition : Given an integral domain $R$, a non-zero non-unit element $r in R$ is said to be irreducible if it cannot be written as a product of non-units i.e. whenever it is written as a product of two elements, at least one of them is a unit in $R$.




              For polynomials, this becomes :




              Definition : Given an integral domain $R$, the ring $R[X]$ also is an integral domain, and $f$ is an irreducible polynomial over $R$ if it is an irreducible element of $R[X]$.




              So, it is that simple. Let us take some examples to clarify.




              • The polynomial $f(x) = x$ is irreducible over any ring, since if $a(x)b(x) =x$, then WLOG $a$ must be a constant polynomial with the constant being a unit(use the rules for multiplication of polynomials), so $a$ is a unit in $R[X]$, hence $x$ is irreducible.


              • The polynomial $f(x) = 2x+2$ is irreducible over $mathbb R[X]$. This is because if $a(x)b(x)$ divides $2(x+1)$ then at least one of $a(x)$ or $b(x)$ is a constant polynomial, but every constant polynomial is a unit in $mathbb R$. However, this polynomial is reducible over $mathbb Z[X]$, since here, $2(x+1)$ counts as a non-unit factorization, because $2$ is not a unit.



              Therefore, reducibility depends on "over which ring/field"? For example, $41 = 41x^0$ is a constant polynomial, but it isn't a unit in $mathbb Z[X]$, while it is one in $mathbb R[X]$. So, a polynomial like $41(x+1)$ is irreducible over the latter but not over the former.





              While working over a field, it turns out that the set of units of $F[X]$ is equal to the non-zero constant polynomials. Therefore, any polynomial is irreducible in $F[X]$ if and only if it can be written as the product of two non-constant polynomials. Things will change for a ring which is not a field, since some non-constant polynomials may possibly not be units.



              Also, note that $41(x^2+x)$ is reducible in every field, since it can be written as $(41 x) times (x+1)$ which is the product of two non-constant polynomials, which are always non-units by the fact that the degree is multiplicative.






              share|cite|improve this answer

























                up vote
                1
                down vote














                Definition : Given an integral domain $R$, a non-zero non-unit element $r in R$ is said to be irreducible if it cannot be written as a product of non-units i.e. whenever it is written as a product of two elements, at least one of them is a unit in $R$.




                For polynomials, this becomes :




                Definition : Given an integral domain $R$, the ring $R[X]$ also is an integral domain, and $f$ is an irreducible polynomial over $R$ if it is an irreducible element of $R[X]$.




                So, it is that simple. Let us take some examples to clarify.




                • The polynomial $f(x) = x$ is irreducible over any ring, since if $a(x)b(x) =x$, then WLOG $a$ must be a constant polynomial with the constant being a unit(use the rules for multiplication of polynomials), so $a$ is a unit in $R[X]$, hence $x$ is irreducible.


                • The polynomial $f(x) = 2x+2$ is irreducible over $mathbb R[X]$. This is because if $a(x)b(x)$ divides $2(x+1)$ then at least one of $a(x)$ or $b(x)$ is a constant polynomial, but every constant polynomial is a unit in $mathbb R$. However, this polynomial is reducible over $mathbb Z[X]$, since here, $2(x+1)$ counts as a non-unit factorization, because $2$ is not a unit.



                Therefore, reducibility depends on "over which ring/field"? For example, $41 = 41x^0$ is a constant polynomial, but it isn't a unit in $mathbb Z[X]$, while it is one in $mathbb R[X]$. So, a polynomial like $41(x+1)$ is irreducible over the latter but not over the former.





                While working over a field, it turns out that the set of units of $F[X]$ is equal to the non-zero constant polynomials. Therefore, any polynomial is irreducible in $F[X]$ if and only if it can be written as the product of two non-constant polynomials. Things will change for a ring which is not a field, since some non-constant polynomials may possibly not be units.



                Also, note that $41(x^2+x)$ is reducible in every field, since it can be written as $(41 x) times (x+1)$ which is the product of two non-constant polynomials, which are always non-units by the fact that the degree is multiplicative.






                share|cite|improve this answer























                  up vote
                  1
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  1
                  down vote










                  Definition : Given an integral domain $R$, a non-zero non-unit element $r in R$ is said to be irreducible if it cannot be written as a product of non-units i.e. whenever it is written as a product of two elements, at least one of them is a unit in $R$.




                  For polynomials, this becomes :




                  Definition : Given an integral domain $R$, the ring $R[X]$ also is an integral domain, and $f$ is an irreducible polynomial over $R$ if it is an irreducible element of $R[X]$.




                  So, it is that simple. Let us take some examples to clarify.




                  • The polynomial $f(x) = x$ is irreducible over any ring, since if $a(x)b(x) =x$, then WLOG $a$ must be a constant polynomial with the constant being a unit(use the rules for multiplication of polynomials), so $a$ is a unit in $R[X]$, hence $x$ is irreducible.


                  • The polynomial $f(x) = 2x+2$ is irreducible over $mathbb R[X]$. This is because if $a(x)b(x)$ divides $2(x+1)$ then at least one of $a(x)$ or $b(x)$ is a constant polynomial, but every constant polynomial is a unit in $mathbb R$. However, this polynomial is reducible over $mathbb Z[X]$, since here, $2(x+1)$ counts as a non-unit factorization, because $2$ is not a unit.



                  Therefore, reducibility depends on "over which ring/field"? For example, $41 = 41x^0$ is a constant polynomial, but it isn't a unit in $mathbb Z[X]$, while it is one in $mathbb R[X]$. So, a polynomial like $41(x+1)$ is irreducible over the latter but not over the former.





                  While working over a field, it turns out that the set of units of $F[X]$ is equal to the non-zero constant polynomials. Therefore, any polynomial is irreducible in $F[X]$ if and only if it can be written as the product of two non-constant polynomials. Things will change for a ring which is not a field, since some non-constant polynomials may possibly not be units.



                  Also, note that $41(x^2+x)$ is reducible in every field, since it can be written as $(41 x) times (x+1)$ which is the product of two non-constant polynomials, which are always non-units by the fact that the degree is multiplicative.






                  share|cite|improve this answer













                  Definition : Given an integral domain $R$, a non-zero non-unit element $r in R$ is said to be irreducible if it cannot be written as a product of non-units i.e. whenever it is written as a product of two elements, at least one of them is a unit in $R$.




                  For polynomials, this becomes :




                  Definition : Given an integral domain $R$, the ring $R[X]$ also is an integral domain, and $f$ is an irreducible polynomial over $R$ if it is an irreducible element of $R[X]$.




                  So, it is that simple. Let us take some examples to clarify.




                  • The polynomial $f(x) = x$ is irreducible over any ring, since if $a(x)b(x) =x$, then WLOG $a$ must be a constant polynomial with the constant being a unit(use the rules for multiplication of polynomials), so $a$ is a unit in $R[X]$, hence $x$ is irreducible.


                  • The polynomial $f(x) = 2x+2$ is irreducible over $mathbb R[X]$. This is because if $a(x)b(x)$ divides $2(x+1)$ then at least one of $a(x)$ or $b(x)$ is a constant polynomial, but every constant polynomial is a unit in $mathbb R$. However, this polynomial is reducible over $mathbb Z[X]$, since here, $2(x+1)$ counts as a non-unit factorization, because $2$ is not a unit.



                  Therefore, reducibility depends on "over which ring/field"? For example, $41 = 41x^0$ is a constant polynomial, but it isn't a unit in $mathbb Z[X]$, while it is one in $mathbb R[X]$. So, a polynomial like $41(x+1)$ is irreducible over the latter but not over the former.





                  While working over a field, it turns out that the set of units of $F[X]$ is equal to the non-zero constant polynomials. Therefore, any polynomial is irreducible in $F[X]$ if and only if it can be written as the product of two non-constant polynomials. Things will change for a ring which is not a field, since some non-constant polynomials may possibly not be units.



                  Also, note that $41(x^2+x)$ is reducible in every field, since it can be written as $(41 x) times (x+1)$ which is the product of two non-constant polynomials, which are always non-units by the fact that the degree is multiplicative.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered 20 mins ago









                  астон вілла олоф мэллбэрг

                  36.6k33376




                  36.6k33376






















                      up vote
                      0
                      down vote













                      A polynomial $f(x)$ is irreducible if $f(x)=g(x)h(x)$ with $deg(g(x)) ge 1$, and $deg(h(x)) ge 1$






                      share|cite

























                        up vote
                        0
                        down vote













                        A polynomial $f(x)$ is irreducible if $f(x)=g(x)h(x)$ with $deg(g(x)) ge 1$, and $deg(h(x)) ge 1$






                        share|cite























                          up vote
                          0
                          down vote










                          up vote
                          0
                          down vote









                          A polynomial $f(x)$ is irreducible if $f(x)=g(x)h(x)$ with $deg(g(x)) ge 1$, and $deg(h(x)) ge 1$






                          share|cite












                          A polynomial $f(x)$ is irreducible if $f(x)=g(x)h(x)$ with $deg(g(x)) ge 1$, and $deg(h(x)) ge 1$







                          share|cite












                          share|cite



                          share|cite










                          answered 7 mins ago









                          Fareed AF

                          35611




                          35611






























                               

                              draft saved


                              draft discarded



















































                               


                              draft saved


                              draft discarded














                              StackExchange.ready(
                              function () {
                              StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f3016802%2freducible-and-irreducible-polynomials-are-confusing-me%23new-answer', 'question_page');
                              }
                              );

                              Post as a guest















                              Required, but never shown





















































                              Required, but never shown














                              Required, but never shown












                              Required, but never shown







                              Required, but never shown

































                              Required, but never shown














                              Required, but never shown












                              Required, but never shown







                              Required, but never shown







                              Popular posts from this blog

                              404 Error Contact Form 7 ajax form submitting

                              How to know if a Active Directory user can login interactively

                              TypeError: fit_transform() missing 1 required positional argument: 'X'